Question:
My friend and I, are locked in a
"beer table" historical dispute.
He doesn't believe that corporations
are legally considered as citizens.
Ok, so when, or in what court case,
was citizenship granted to the legal
entity of a corporation? Curious,
I cant seem to locate the defining
moment in history. Pulled up a copy
of that case brief, and it seems
to pertain to an attempt by Santa
Clara, to tax Southern Pacific on
property/improvements, even though
it was exempted by previous Federal
agreement. I can't seem to find
the court opinion/phrases that actually
convey citizenship rights to the
legal entity. (Unless it's the fact
of the trial itself) More questions,,,,,,
(hopefully more answers.) Aren't
citizens of the US, supposed to
be the only participants in our
political process? If a legal entity/corporation
can be a citizen of the US, when
does a multinational become disqualified,
for conflict of interest/allegiance?
OR--If there is no qualification
for a multinational, when can a
foreign born multinational qualify
as a US citizen?
Answer:
NO. Why would they? WE are not the
US, we are WE THE PEOPLE which made
the U.S., but are in fact Americans..
foreign to the U.S. >>If a legal
entity/corporation can be a citizen
of the US, when does a >>multinational
become disqualified, for conflict
of interest/allegiance? No corporation
can be as flesh and blood...only
man has that right granted by his
creator God.
Although they
have things the can do, act like
a person, own like a person, and
live longer than a person they still
don' have all the RIGHTS a real
person has. Although they may be
corporate citizens of the corporate
USA they are not real Citizens nor
ever could become one.
